On Jun 30, 1:38 pm, Don Bowey <dbo...@comcast.net> wrote:
> On 6/30/07 12:46 PM, in article
> 1183232774.691111.287...@o11g2000prd.googlegroups. com, "Radium"
>
> <gluceg...@gmail.com> wrote:
> > On Jun 30, 3:32 am, "Mike Kaliski" <michael.kali...@tesco.net> wrote:
>
> >> It is not possible to modulate a carrier frequency at a frequency higher
> >> than the carrier frequency.
>
> > Why not?
>
> > I am getting conflicting answers. Some say it's possible to modulate a
> > carrier frequency at a frequency higher than the carrier frequency,
> > others say it isn't.
>
> Partly it's because you formulate piss poor questions.
>
>
>
> > Who is right?
>
> Neither if stated as an "absolute rule," a.k.a. a Universal Generalization.
> It depends on what you want as a result. However, IMHO opinion, I believe
> it is best to have the Carrier at a higher frequency than the modulating
> frequency.
>
> If you are amplitude modulating a Carrier with a voice band signal, then it
> is mandatory, for a reasonable result, that the Carrier have a much higher
> frequency than the modulating frequency.
>
> If you are AM modulating (a.k.a. RF mixing or converting) two signals for
> the purpose of creating sum and difference "Carriers" in, for example, a
> synthesizer, you could use the low frequency to "modulate" the high
> frequency frequency, but I don¹t recommend it unless some special effect is
> desired.
>
> Start with the question of what is it you wish to accomplish then ask real
> questions, not some far-out hypothetical drivel.

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