
10-19-2006, 06:29 PM
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Re: More 3102 questions! On 14 Oct 2006 13:45:26 -0700, "Oldie" <realoldie@googlemail.com>
wrote:
>My SPA-3102 is running well so far for outbound and inbound calls, and
>has even passed the WAF! I've set up dialplans so that 1471, 1571, 999
>etc. dial out through gw0 (BT). One thing that has me stumped though is
>call diversion.
>
>I generally divert my PSTN line to my mobile using *21*mobileno#.
>However if I put this into my dialplan it won't work. I have #0 set up
>to give me a PSTN dial tone, but even when I dial this I can't then
>send the diversion string.
It would have been useful if you had posted your dial plan.
I have an SPA-3000 - so I assume it is going to be a similar set up.
I confess to never having tried PSTN access because I don't have a
PSTN line. So I am going to guess this.
I would set up a code specially for the divert. You must include the
* in your plan. This is where I guess you have gone wrong.
.. Lets say you use #5 as your divert access code.
You would need to do this:-
<#50:*21*0>7xxxxxxxxx <:@gw0>
I have never included a # in a dialling sequence that was transmitted
so can't speak with any surity but you might have to follow the
xxxxxxxxx with a #. Thus making
<#50:*21*0>7xxxxxxxxx# <:@gw0>
Alternatively you might simply try
<#50:*21*0>7xx.<:@gw0>
To divert a call you'd dial #5 followed by the full mobile number.
I feel sure that one or more of these will work.
Please post to let us all know how you went on.
>
>So I tried to use a speed dial to send the string, then I found out
>that I couldn't get any of my speed dials to do anything at all! In
>fact, I don't really understand the differences between the speed dials
>on the User 1 tab and the PSTN User tabs. Can anyone explain this to me
>in simple terms?
If you puit a simple speed dial number in it will use the default VSP.
You can however, add a gateway. For example:
01274723456@gw3
>
>I have Line 1 set up as Voxalot so that I can receive incoming calls on
>all my VoIP providers. Could this be causing me problems in sending *
>and # codes?
In short no. I can't see any reason for that to be the case.
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